As I have debated many on the issue of faith only doctrine I would like to point out a major flaw in such teaching. They will teach you that John’s baptism, Jesus’ baptism, and the Christian baptism are all one in the same. They always make the comparison when presenting their doctrine. Here’s the question I ask them. If all these baptisms are all the same. And you teach that baptism has nothing to do with salvation, because it’s faith only. How can you teach that John’s baptism was to prepare the way of the Lord? How can you teach Jesus’ baptism was to fulfill all righteousness? How come the difference standards in your doctrine? Wouldn’t these two events be by faith only? If your going to teach that the believers baptism has nothing to do with salvation. The you must also teach that John’s baptism had nothing to do with preparing the way of the Lord. And Jesus baptism had nothing to do with fulfilling all righteousness. They would be under the grace of God and it would require faith only. But they can’t teach it that way because everybody knows what those baptisms were for because scripture is very clear on its purpose. Just as the believers baptism is very clear about its role in the plan of salvation. Let us take note of the baptism of John and Jesus. Jesus baptism was to fulfill all righteousness. What does that statement (to fulfill all righteousness) mean? Jesus was about to become are High Priest (Hebrews epistle). In order to become a High Priest there were certain Old Testament principles that needed to be fulfilled. You had to be 30 years old. Jesus had just turned 30. You also had to be washed (a cleansing). Baptism is a cleansing of the inner man. 1st Peter 3:18-21 it’s a cleansing of the conscience. Also Colossians 2:11-12 God is working in us to circumcise our heart. Which is the circumcision not done by hands. This is sanctification which was a cleansing according to the Old Testament. When Israel was to go before God they were told to sanctify themselves. God told them to wash and wash their clothes. Did Jesus need to be made pure by sanctification? No, but he did need to be in line with the fathers will. Baptism is never a work of men but a work of God. The bible never said I couldn’t do a work of God to fulfill his will. It just tells us I can’t come up with a work to save myself. It is Gods will that I be baptized for the remission of sins and to receive the Holy Spirit. That still puts me under the grace of God because it’s still his free offer of salvation in which he will do the work of forgiving and saving. If it’s by faith only then Jesus became a High Priest by doing a work and not by grace. That’s how James could write and declare Faith without works is dead. The work has to be works of God and not works of men.
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